FSIS Inspection and Mission (IM) Training Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• A District Manager issues a suspension to an establishment, but subsequently lifts the suspension temporarily to allow the establishment an opportunity to implement proposed corrective actions. This is referred to as:
• What size should the intact sample collected by IPP for the RTEPROD_RAND be?
• If an allergen is found in a product formulation but not on the final label, which of the following actions is appropriate?
• At which of the following steps in the slaughter process are carcasses potentially at highest risk for contamination?
• Which term describes a laboratory finding that is not final and requires confirmatory analysis?
• Which statement is true about NR preparation?
• What is a rarely used sampling method for livestock due to its destructive nature?
• Which of the following is not a stated purpose of generic E. coli sampling?
• Name the two approved methods of humane slaughter in the Humane Methods of Slaughter Act (HMSA).
• Establishments must keep Sanitation SOP records for how long?
• When performing HATS Category III (Water and Feed Availability) IPP observe that a holding pen has two water troughs but only one is filled, and all animals in the pen have access to the trough. Would they document noncompliance?
• Beef Sanitary Dressing task timing is specified as which of the following?
• If IPP performing a Big 9 Formulation Verification task finds that one allergen is present in a product component but not listed on the final label, which steps should be taken?
• What must establishments consider for every hazard identified as NRLTO?
• HT-SS stands for Heat Treated-Shelf Stable.
• Which of the following are basic components of the HACCP safety system?
• Which of the following describes a correct response when IPP records access is denied by establishment management in a regulatory context?
• Which regulation addresses HACCP-related IPP tasks?
• In analyzing the results of Salmonella and Campylobacter testing, IPP evaluate based on which criterion?
• SRMs are tissues that must be controlled to reduce disease risk in beef.
• When FSIS receives a sample result positive for STEC in raw beef product, and the establishment tested the same lot of product and also got a positive result for STEC, IPP should:
• FSIS Directive 5000.6 provides guidance related to HAV. What aspect does it define?
• From a public health standpoint, Taenia saginata and Taenia solium are important examples of _______.
• Ritual slaughter establishments are exempt from the general requirement to stun animals prior to slaughter.
• 417.3(a) states that when a food safety system failure occurs that is not addressed in the Hazard Analysis and HACCP plan (i.e., unforeseen hazard), the establishment must perform a HACCP reassessment.
• If IPP determine that there are issues with the export upon reinspection what should they do?
• When an establishment is connected to a well system or other private water supply, how often must IPP verify documentation certifying potability?
• IPP associate NRs for zero tolerance failures are triggered under which condition?
• Which program is used to collect intact samples from Ready-To-Eat products?
• When is the livestock zero tolerance standard for head, cheek, and weasand meat and edible offal verified?
• Which statement correctly describes how RLTO and NRLTO hazards are addressed?
• Which of the following is an example of misbranding?
• After the pre-shipment review is signed, how is the product status described?
• What is the primary objective of a functional food defense plan?
• Listeria monocytogenes can:
• Which accounts for the largest proportion of all foodborne illnesses associated with meat and poultry products?
• When IPP documents noncompliance, what type of task may they perform to verify that the establishment has brought itself back into compliance?
• Which HACCP task directs the IPP to review the establishment's hazard analysis for one HACCP plan, the HACCP plan, and prerequisite programs to support the decision that a food safety hazard is present?
• Which of the following might warrant a withholding action or suspension without prior notification?
• IPP should document an SPS noncompliance when they observe that restrooms are not separate from the processing area. This statement is:
• Which statement correctly describes SRMs in regulatory context?
• Why is the Sanitary Operations performance standard considered important?
• Fully cooked ready-to-eat (RTE) products that are handled by personnel or otherwise directly touch surfaces in the production environment after the lethality step are considered:
• A withdrawal is roughly defined as:
• Which of the following is NOT a type of regulatory control action?
• For excision sampling, which criterion is used to evaluate results?
• How do IPP determine which HACCP processing category to perform the HAV on each quarter?
• What does the Task Calendar show when viewed by IPP?
• How much prior notice should IPP give an establishment prior to collecting a sample?
• Which statement is true about establishment validation documents?
• Which system should IPP use to view results when they need to verify a sample outcome?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of sanitary dressing?
• Bacterial growth occurs most rapidly during the ____________.
• Flaking or peeling paint on walls or ceilings of edible product areas indicates which status?
• HT-SS stands for Heat Treated-Shelf Stable.
• Which document is used to suspend an establishment in response to a trend in noncompliance?
• What does HAV stand for in HACCP verification tasks?
• Which of the following are considered specified risk materials (SRM) in cattle of all ages?
• HATS Category VIII pertains to which aspect?
• What process should an establishment follow when appealing a noncompliance record (NR) issued by a CSI?
• In the context of generic E. coli sampling, what does 'm/M' refer to?
• Post-lethality exposure refers to products that have already undergone lethality steps and are then exposed to the production environment.
• Which action should IPP take when STEC results require MOI documentation and corrective actions?
• Which of the following is NOT a risk factor associated with Lm contamination due to disruptive construction?
• Which document does IPP use to document weekly meetings and other important information shared with the establishment?
• An establishment employee did not perform thermometer calibration as written in the HACCP plan. What type of noncompliance is this?
• An establishment not properly collecting and analyzing samples for E. coli biotype I would be considered a deficiency in which area?
• Are HACCP inspection tasks ever performed as routine or directed tasks?
• A functional food defense plan will help to prevent __________.
• How often should IPP perform the Livestock Humane Handling Verification task?
• During the Review Establishment Data task, which records are subject to IPP review?
• Not Heat Treated-Shelf Stable products rely primarily on which method to achieve food safety?
• A process or treatment applied to the product or packaging after the initial lethality step intended to reduce or eliminate the risk of Lm contamination in the post-lethality environment is called
• In FSIS terminology, what is a lab result called when it appears positive but requires further analysis before a final result is reported?
• Freezing, fermentation, and drying are examples of ____________ applied to RTE products to suppress or limit the growth of Lm throughout the shelf life of the product.
• What is a key reason for Lm monitoring in post-lethality exposed environments?
• Which statement about IPP scheduling tasks for another inspector is true?
• Which statement is true of any establishment that exposes ready-to-eat (RTE) product to the environment post-lethality?
• A window without a screen has a broken windowpane. This condition is considered:
• If an IPP needs to verify the time and temperature requirements for an RTE product to ensure lethality is met, which resource should be consulted?
• Establishments that exceed the performance standard for Salmonella within a 52-week window will be classified by FSIS into which category?
• The 9 CFR Part 417 regulation is most closely associated with which program area?
• Which statement about how and when Salmonella and Campylobacter samples are taken is correct?
• IPP issues NRs for Good Commercial Practices when they observe:
• List the 4 main parts of the FSIS regulatory process:
• Who is responsible for selecting and analyzing samples for generic E. coli?
• Is it true that IPP are to automatically issue an NR when generic E. coli testing results indicate a lack of process control?
• The introduction of humidity is essential during heating/cooking because which of the following is true?
• Deficiencies in _______ and _______ are the two main causes of failure of an establishment's food safety system.
• Which term describes using two or more barriers (hurdles) to control hazards in foods?
• An establishment employee did not perform the pre-shipment review. What type of noncompliance is this?
• Which statement describes the role of the Establishment Profile in determining inspection planning?
• Where must Sanitation SOP records be maintained?
• Which statement about ritual slaughter establishments is true?
• Observing several cockroaches on the floor in the establishment's break area indicates which status?
• What should IPP do if there is a change or error in production?
• Which statement about the RTEPROD_RISK sampling program is true?
• Which of the following is true of the Beef Sanitary Dressing task?
• Which of the following describes a food allergy?
• Which statement about the pre-shipment review is true?
• Which statement about presumptive positive results is true?
• Each HACCP task has two verification components. Which option correctly names these two components?
• When performing the Big 9 Formulation Verification, if an ingredient used in a product formulation contains an allergen, how can the consumer be informed?
• Which statement best describes the focus of the SPS?
• Which statement best describes the Systems Thinking concept in HACCP?
• Which of the following is not true of appeals?
• What does the acronym FATTOM stand for in HACCP?
• The 52-week moving window used to evaluate Salmonella performance represents data from how many weeks?
• Which term describes a lab result that, while appearing positive, requires confirmatory testing before final reporting?
• Low lighting in the gizzard-peeling area that prevents an establishment worker from inspecting the product would constitute noncompliance with which FSIS standard?
• The HACCP Verification task focuses the IPP's attention on the implementation of the establishment's HACCP plans, prerequisite programs, and other supporting programs. This focus is described as focusing on the ______.
• How often will IPP perform the HAV task?
• Sample collection and analysis instructions are found in which FSIS Directives series?
• What is the intended effect of a post-lethality treatment on a ready-to-eat product?
• Who is authorized to issue a Notice of Suspension?
• Is it correct to cite 9 CFR 416.1 when documenting noncompliance with SPS regulations?
• Which hazards categories are considered for each processing step?
• Which term describes a FSIS-defined limit designed to ensure safety for specific products, often set by the agency rather than by the establishment?
• In PHIS, dispositions for poultry are entered at what level?
• Which of the following might warrant a withholding action or suspension with prior notification?
• Cooked poultry products must achieve a 7.0-log reduction in which organism during cooking?
• FSIS notice NOT true?
• Pest control substances are stored in a separate storage room, with containers labeled and used by employees in accordance with instructions on file in the plant office. This practice is:
• How many sites will the establishment sample on a carcass, and when?
• All inspected establishments are required to have a written humane handling program.
• Which method is NOT used to enter poultry dispositions into PHIS?
• Which of the following statements best describes how poultry dispositions are entered into PHIS?
• A deviation from a critical limit occurred and the establishment did not identify and eliminate the cause of the deviation. What type of noncompliance is this?
• Which publication would you consult to find the official enforcement procedures?
• The ventilation standard requires establishments to:
• Can IPP complete tasks scheduled or started by another inspector?
• Which term describes controls used when CCPs are not effective?
• FSIS has no specific labeling requirements for food ingredients of public health concern.
• FSIS maintains control of the export stamps in establishments. Which entity maintains that control?
• When IPP have finished documenting an NR and are ready to deliver it to establishment management, they must first do what?
• What regulations in Title 9 CFR cover HACCP?
• In FSIS sampling, which criterion best describes how raw beef product types are selected for testing?
• Establishments are required by regulations to reassess their HACCP plans. How often must this occur?
• Which category is NOT eligible for FSIS Salmonella and Campylobacter sampling?
• FSIS's authority to regulate meat and poultry products comes from which source?
• Which statement about the Employee Hygiene sanitation performance standard is true?
• Which entity is responsible for charting results of generic E. coli sampling?
• During the HAV task, IPP are to review and verify which of the following?
• Which FSIS standard covers the requirement that restrooms be separated from processing areas?
• Which step involves entering HACCP inspection task results, documenting, and associating noncompliance records (when applicable)?
• What does the acronym GAD refer to in the FSIS regulatory process?
• Which Lm Alternative provides for control of Lm entirely through sanitation and sampling of food contact surfaces?
• Beef Jerky, which is a HTSS product relies primarily on _________ to achieve food safety:
• In post-lethality exposed RTE products, drying is best described as which type of antimicrobial control?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between the Establishment Profile and task assignments?
• Why is timely scheduling of assigned samples important?
• Which RTE category is Not Heat Treated-Shelf Stable?
• What does NRLTO stand for?
• Which two processing steps are usually identified as CCPs in production of FC-NSS products?
• Which statement about Alternative 3 is true?
• FSIS performs Regulatory Control Actions (RCA) and other enforcement actions. What must be followed when any action is taken?
• When IPP verify that the establishment has brought itself back into compliance, they are to ________ :
• A meat or poultry product that is in a form that is edible without additional preparation to achieve food safety is called:
• During cooking, beef products must achieve which of the following log reductions in Salmonella?
• When ensuring that a consumer is informed of an allergen in a product, which approach is appropriate?
• What does RTE stand for in the context of these procedures?
• Where will IPP find all relevant information about an establishment?
• Non-food safety consumer protection (NFSCP) tasks are designed to prevent economically adulterated products from entering commerce.
• Which is true of the pre-shipment review?
• Is it required that all establishments have a functional food defense plan?
• When FSIS receives a sample result positive for STEC in raw beef product, and the establishment either diverted the product for cooking or tested the same lot and got a negative result, IPP are to
• Which term describes an establishment's right to a fair proceeding before the government interferes with its business?
• What frequency does a very small establishment performing generic E. coli sampling use?
• A product that is free of microorganisms capable of growing in the product under non-refrigerated conditions at which the product is intended to be held during distribution and storage is referred to as:
• The poultry zero tolerance standard is verified how often on each production line?
• If barrels of inedible byproducts are stored in the same cooler as edible carcasses and are unlabeled, this is:
• Prerequisite programs in HACCP typically cover which area?
• Which document communicates intended enforcement to an establishment before action is taken?
• Which group of pathogenic bacteria are considered a particular public health risk because they produce dangerous toxins and form heat-resistant spores at ambient temperatures?
• Which of the following best describes what the poultry zero tolerance standard includes?
• When using the excision method, which should cattle slaughter establishments use to analyze generic E. coli sampling results?
• If IPP is wondering about results of a sample, which resource can they check on the PHIS homepage for updates?
• FSIS Directive _____ covers the steps IPP will take when performing the verification activities associated with NFSCP tasks.
• Which step involves performing HACCP inspection tasks and verifying specific HACCP regulatory requirements?
• If pest control substances are stored in the same room as edible products, without labeling, the situation is best described as:
• What is true of the SPS standard for equipment and utensils?
• If pest control substances are stored in a separate storage room but the containers are not labeled, the situation is best described as:
• What must establishments consider for every RLTO hazard?
• HATS Category V covers which area?
• How often is the Review Establishment Data task performed?
• Which organisms are addressed by drying in products such as beef jerky?
• Noncompliance is defined as _______________:
• The use of two or more critical operational parameters to achieve lethality and control a hazard is referred to as:
• Regulatory control actions are actions IPP take to control process or products such as stopping the line or rejecting equipment. True or False?
• In the context of laboratory results, what status is assigned when a result is pending confirmatory analysis?
• Microbial organisms that have the potential to cause foodborne illnesses are called _________.
• Which statement best describes the focus of the Sanitation Performance Standards (SPS)?
• The first action when IPP observe an establishment employee harming livestock is to apply a 'U.S. Rejected' tag to the alleyway.
• Which step in the four-step HACCP regulatory process involves using the GAD process to determine regulatory compliance or noncompliance?
• When an unforeseen hazard occurs, the establishment will need to follow the corrective actions prescribed in:
• Which statement is true about food intolerance?
• Which entity is responsible for verification testing for Salmonella and Campylobacter in FSIS programs?
• Which statement about food intolerance is true?
• What action should IPP take when concerns arise with establishment management regarding generic E. coli sampling?
• A food allergy is
• Which RTE category relies on both heat and a curing, drying, or fermenting step to achieve food safety?
• Which resource on the PHIS platform shows urgent information about a sample's status?
• The establishment must address the relevant hazards of concern when producing RTE products in the HACCP or SSOP plan. Must they also perform sampling in the RTE processing environment for Lm Alternative 1?
• Which regulation prescribes corrective actions for unforeseen hazards?
• Which method does an IPP use to verify compliance with SPS regulations?
• Which statement about equipment and utensils is false?
• How often should the Establishment Profile be updated by IPP in the PHIS system?
• Explain the Agency's actions when an establishment has failed a Salmonella performance standard in carcasses.
• Which statement best describes the role of IPP with respect to equipment and utensils?
• Any general practices and conditions needed prior to and during the implementation of HACCP and which are essential for food safety are referred to as:
• Which statement about presumptive positive results is true?
• Sodium diacetate is an example of an antimicrobial ______ used in post-lethality exposed RTE products, whereas drying is an example of an antimicrobial ______ used in post-lethality exposed RTE products.
• Which statement about IICs withholding actions is accurate?
• A process step used to destroy pathogenic microorganisms in a product to make it safe for human consumption is called:
• What must be documented in the HACCP/SSOP plan for RTE products?
• A quantifiable pathogen reduction level or growth limit requirement set by an establishment to produce safe products is called a:
• During Pre-Operational SSOP Review & Observation, if inspector finds residue on a food contact surface from previous day's production, what is required?
• Mechanically tenderized beef, and intact raw beef products, such as trim, intended to be processed into non-intact products contaminated with E. coli O157:H7 or six non-O157 STECs are considered:
• Barrels of inedible slaughter byproducts are labeled and stored in a separate cooler from trimmed and washed carcasses. This is considered:
• What abbreviation stands for the document used to record interviews and information shared with the establishment?
• When IPP reviews an establishment's flowchart, what requirement must be verified?
• Which RTE category describes Heat Treated but Not Fully Cooked-Not Shelf Stable?
• Which term describes a laboratory finding that initially appears positive but is not the final result until confirmatory tests are completed?
• Statement: Listeria monocytogenes can grow in cool, damp environments.
• Sanitation SOP records must be maintained on site for how long?
• Which RTE category relies on a full lethality heat processing step (cooking) to achieve food safety?
• HACCP monitoring is a planned sequence of observations or measurements to assess which of the following?
• Listeria monocytogenes is a pathogen of concern in food production environments because
• Which of the following is NOT a post-lethality measure?
• NR stands for Noncompliance Report.
• Which task type describes verifying continued compliance after noncompliance has been documented?
• Which action is NOT an appropriate part of Pre-Operational SSOP Review & Observation?
• Which element in PHIS provides visibility into task assignments and completion status?
• Which consequence is likely if the Establishment Profile is not updated monthly in PHIS?
• Which statement best reflects how poultry dispositions are recorded in PHIS?
• Which tag is used to disallow shipment of a contaminated product?
• Who issues a Notice of Intended Enforcement (NOIE) in response to a concerning trend in noncompliance reported by IPP?
• Which statement best describes performance criteria?
• Regarding the SPS Verification task, which statement is correct?
• The statement “The purpose of the FSIS Salmonella and Campylobacter verification sampling program is to determine the disposition of lots of product which test positive” is.
• What is sanitary dressing?
• One of four handwash sinks in the production room does not have soap or paper hand towels. This situation is:
• Which action would an IPP most likely take to verify sanitary conditions during an SPS inspection?
• Where do IPP find and review the importing country requirements for an export shipment?
• IPP must ensure the Establishment Profile is kept up to date and accurate because:
• Which of the following does the plumbing sanitation performance standard require?
• How are poultry dispositions entered into PHIS?
• Which actions should be taken if product contamination results from an insanitary condition?
• During cooling (stabilization) for beef products, no more than which organism's 1.0-log growth is allowed?
• FSIS determines establishment Salmonella performance using which method?
• Which of the following is a requirement of the SRM regulations (9 CFR 310.22)?
• During cooling (stabilization) for beef products, zero growth is required for which organism?
• When IPP observe egregious inhumane handling of livestock, what should they do first?
• Can IPP schedule tasks for another inspector?
• Who is responsible for verifying HACCP corrective actions and possible reassessment after a Salmonella failure?
• Which color corresponds to 'not open (scheduled)' in inspection task colors?
• Who is required to conduct Salmonella and Campylobacter verification testing?
• What is the time increment IPP will use for recording HATS category verification?
• Which action is part of the Big 9 Formulation Verification process when an allergen is present in the product formulation?
• FC-NSS stands for Fully Cooked-Not Shelf Stable.
• Which term refers to the FSIS-defined target established by an establishment to control a hazard and ensure safety?
• Is it true that IPP can schedule collector-generated samples by clicking on 'Directed' next to the project name in the Establishment Task List?
• Which description best defines 'egregious inhumane handling'?
• SPS are not prescriptive but they set the standard to be achieved. Which option describes this concept most accurately?
• The zero tolerance standard for livestock includes:
• Which acronym lists the factors that affect microbial growth?
• Which option is NOT a valid PHIS entry method for poultry dispositions?
• A substance added to RTE product intended to suppress or limit the growth of Lm throughout the shelf life of the product is called
• Which organism was selected as the target organism because it is a commonly reported cause of foodborne illness and is present in all major species?
• PHIS disposition data for poultry is typically recorded at which level?
• Which statement about NR handling is true?
• Which provides instruction to IPP on how to implement and enforce rules and inspection methodology?
• By when must daily SSOP records be made available to FSIS for verification?
• What is the routine evaluation of SSOPs called?
• Why was Salmonella selected as the target organism?
• Which statement accurately describes the Grant of Inspection in FSIS operations?
• When the District Manager issues a _____ in response to a concerning trend in noncompliance reported by IPP, the establishment has 3 days to respond in writing with proposed corrective actions:
• Which statement correctly expands FC-NSS abbreviations for Ready-To-Eat products?
• Which of the following is true of establishment responsibilities for controlling ingredients of public health concern?
• Salmonella and Campylobacter samples are taken for not-ready-to-eat (NRTE) comminuted product when which condition applies?
• HATS Category II addresses which aspect of humane handling?
• A robust systematic approach to humane handling consists of a written document and associated records.
• A quantifiable pathogen reduction level or growth limit requirement set by FSIS for certain products is called a:
• Describe how to determine which raw beef product to sample.
• Which option correctly reflects SSOP monitoring frequencies?
• Which statement is true about STEC testing in FSIS programs?
• Which statement about the handwashing facilities is true according to 416.2(h)(1)?
• The livestock zero tolerance standard for carcasses is verified
• The organism testing in poultry establishments is used as a measure of process control rather than adulterants in raw poultry.
• Which color indicates 'completed' in IPP inspection task colors?
• When performing the Pre-Operational SSOP Review and Observation task, IPP should do what components?
• If IPP perform multiple export certifications on a shift, how frequently will they record the task in PHIS?
• Slaughter establishments using the sponging method for generic E. coli sampling must use which of the following to analyze results?
• FSIS's legal authority to regulate meat and poultry products is derived from:
• Which category is eligible for FSIS Salmonella and Campylobacter sampling?
• Listeria monocytogenes contamination has been linked to disruptive construction in the production environment. Which option best reflects the potential risk factors?
• What is the primary purpose of Salmonella and Campylobacter testing in poultry establishments?
• Fermentation in fermented, dried sausage products is essential to prevent the outgrowth of which organism?
• If an establishment employee is not monitoring at the frequency specified in the HACCP plan, what type of noncompliance is this?
• What must establishments determine when assessing potential hazards for each step in the flowchart?
• Which action is NOT taken by IPP when establishment management refuses access to records impacting their food safety system?
• Which form of documentation is required by the SPS regulations?
• Which option correctly describes the required granularity for poultry dispositions in PHIS?
• FSIS maintains control of the export stamps in establishments. In establishments that use printed stamps on labels what must IPP do with any extra labels.
• IPP will perform the Food Defense verification task quarterly.
• What status must a noncompliance be given in PHIS before printing and delivering to the establishment?
• Which statement best defines Supporting Documentation in HACCP?
• Which step of the four-step HACCP regulatory process involves following the Rules of Practice and affording establishments due process?
• The process of preventing or limiting the growth of spore-forming bacteria such as Clostridium perfringens and Clostridium botulinum is primarily achieved through which concept?
• Except in very small establishments, which HATS category is verified every time the Livestock Humane Handling Verification task is performed during normal slaughter operations?
• What is the primary purpose of regulatory control actions?
• When raw beef product tests positive for E. coli O157:H7 or other STECs, establishments may choose to